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My apologies. I keep keep forgetting people here are incapable of detecting sarcasm.

Your perspective is skewed. Virginia Woolf lived in the 20th century, and the Elizabethan period ended a few centuries before she was born. You can't use Virginia Woolf to prove anything about gender norms in the Elizabethan period, much less compare the norms between royal, noble and common women during Shakespeare's time.

Just putting things into perspective, here.




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