Would it be fair to say that "costs of transactions" are in some part due to government bureacracy and taxing?
Some costs of transactions are due to the need to document compliance with government regulations. The existence of regulations with compliance burdens will tend to make firms bigger than they would otherwise be, but many and probably most transaction costs aren't due to government, and there would be many additional sorts of transactions costs if there weren't a government at all.
And could it be, that certain structures are less optimal (profitable) for the single "firm", but more optimal for the economy as awhole. Could there even be a distinction?
It probably could, depending on what you mean by "optimal". Its pretty well established[1] that in the absence of transaction costs you can get a Pareto efficient[2] outcome, but Pareto efficiency is probably not the same thing you would call optimal (though what you'd call optimal is almost certainly Pareto efficient).
I would tend to expect that, given that we live in a world with transaction costs, firms are not the ideal size. But its hard to say whether firms ought to be bigger in general or smaller. Countries with relatively efficient economies (Germany) tend to have larger firms than countries with less efficient economies (Italy) but its really hard to tease out in those cases which way causality is flowing. Most countries tend to have laws that favor small businesses, and those might end up more than making up for their proportionally higher regulatory burden.
Some costs of transactions are due to the need to document compliance with government regulations. The existence of regulations with compliance burdens will tend to make firms bigger than they would otherwise be, but many and probably most transaction costs aren't due to government, and there would be many additional sorts of transactions costs if there weren't a government at all.
And could it be, that certain structures are less optimal (profitable) for the single "firm", but more optimal for the economy as awhole. Could there even be a distinction?
It probably could, depending on what you mean by "optimal". Its pretty well established[1] that in the absence of transaction costs you can get a Pareto efficient[2] outcome, but Pareto efficiency is probably not the same thing you would call optimal (though what you'd call optimal is almost certainly Pareto efficient).
I would tend to expect that, given that we live in a world with transaction costs, firms are not the ideal size. But its hard to say whether firms ought to be bigger in general or smaller. Countries with relatively efficient economies (Germany) tend to have larger firms than countries with less efficient economies (Italy) but its really hard to tease out in those cases which way causality is flowing. Most countries tend to have laws that favor small businesses, and those might end up more than making up for their proportionally higher regulatory burden.
[1]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorems_of_welfare... [2]http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pareto_efficiency